Re: God didn't get his act together untill 1611 ad?:
King James Bible Discussion Deck

If ye would like to moderate the King James Bible Discussion Deck, please drop becket@jollyroger.com a line.
King James Bible & Re: God didn't get his act together untill 1611 ad?

[Open Source CMS Renaissance][Postnuke Hosting][Gallery Hosting][Blog Hosting]
DR. ELLIOT'S NORTH AMERICAN GREAT BOOKS TOUR--COMING TO A BOOK STORE NEAR YOU
[GREAT BOOKS: DISCUSS THE TRAGEDY OF DRAKERAFT.COM][Great Books Lovers Match]
[Physics Forums][Poetry][Shakespeare's Plays][Great Books][Open Source Business]
[Great Books Games][Federalist Papers][Poetry Contest][Classic eCards][Great Books Forums]

The new King James Bible Forum is at killdevilhill.com/philosophyforums.
The World's Largest Literary Cafe: Carolinanavy.com
[Carolinanavy.com][Nantuckets.com][BusinessPhilosophy.com][Classicals.com][Quarterdeck]
[ Jolly Roger Live Chat][The Jolly Roger][KillDevilHill.com][Western Canon University]
[Federalistnavy.com Spirit of America][Starbuck.com Clical Poetry Port]
[ussconstitutions.com] [Free jollyrogermail] [Shakespearean Greetings]
[nantucketnavy.com][hatteraslight.com][Clicgreetings.com]
[SEARCH]


[Follow Ups][Post Followup][King James Bible Forum Frigate] [The Jolly Roger]
[The World's Largest Literary Cafe: Carolinanavy.com]

Posted by Josh Gray on May 22, 19101 at 02:22:53:

In Reply to: God didn't get his act together untill 1611 ad? posted by skepticbud on April 05, 19100 at 06:29:50:

: "The words of the LORD are pure words: as silver tried in a furnace of earth, purified seven times. Thou shalt keep them, O LORD, thou shalt preserve them from this generation for ever." (Psalm 12:6-7, KJV)

: Does that verse mean that God preserves his words perfectly, as every KJV Onlyist who uses that verse insists?

: If so, remember that Psalm 12:6-7 had been saying exactly that for centuries before 1611 (god's word does not take on new meanings because it is forever settle in the heavens, right?). Therefore, where do we find an inspired infallible perfectly inerrant version of the scriptures before 1611, since Psalm 12 did not begin to exist in 1611?

: Did everybody who read Psalm 12 before 1611, just have to sigh at the mysterious ways of God, or was the word of god a sure word that could be trusted even before 1611?

: Another thought:
: If you say there was never a time after the originals, but before 1611, that an infallible inerrant copy of the scriptures existed, then obviously your god did not preserve his words in the KJV ONLYIST way you wish he did. Every copy of the bible the world have ever known clear up to the just before 1611, had error after error in it, so perfectly inerrant versions of the scriptures are just not the way god choose to do things centuries before 1611, which sort of establishes a trend concerning what God is like and how he does things, eh?

: thanks!

: skepticbud

I would love to know the evidence given by KJVers regarding the false notion tha 'heritics' corrupted the N.T. text. Get this: KJV only advocates quote 2 Cor.2:17 in the KJV to prove that the Bible was corrupted and the they quote 1 Pet.1:23-2 in favor of their doctrine of preservation, and the verse says that the Word of god is INCORRUPTABLE! I challenge any KJV only advocate to give me one shred of evidence that 'heritics' corrupted the N.T. text (e.g. Vatic and Sinaticus).




Follow Ups:



Post a Followup

Name:
E-Mail:

Subject:

Comments:

Optional Link URL:
Link Title:
Optional Image URL:


[Follow Ups][Post Followup][