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Posted by skepticbud on April 05, 19100 at 06:29:50:
"The words of the LORD are pure words: as silver tried in a furnace of earth, purified seven times. Thou shalt keep them, O LORD, thou shalt preserve them from this generation for ever." (Psalm 12:6-7, KJV)
Does that verse mean that God preserves his words perfectly, as every KJV Onlyist who uses that verse insists?
If so, remember that Psalm 12:6-7 had been saying exactly that for centuries before 1611 (god's word does not take on new meanings because it is forever settle in the heavens, right?). Therefore, where do we find an inspired infallible perfectly inerrant version of the scriptures before 1611, since Psalm 12 did not begin to exist in 1611?
Did everybody who read Psalm 12 before 1611, just have to sigh at the mysterious ways of God, or was the word of god a sure word that could be trusted even before 1611?
Another thought:
If you say there was never a time after the originals, but before 1611, that an infallible inerrant copy of the scriptures existed, then obviously your god did not preserve his words in the KJV ONLYIST way you wish he did. Every copy of the bible the world have ever known clear up to the just before 1611, had error after error in it, so perfectly inerrant versions of the scriptures are just not the way god choose to do things centuries before 1611, which sort of establishes a trend concerning what God is like and how he does things, eh?
thanks!
skepticbud